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SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) Tier-I 2024 Solved Paper Recruitment 2026
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Access the complete solved question paper for the SSC CGL Tier-1 2024 exam (Shift-1, held on 09 September 2024). Boost your preparation for upcoming exams with detailed step-by-step solutions for Reasoning, Quant, English, and General Awareness.
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Complete Solved Paper (All 100 Questions)
Held On: 09 September 2024 (Shift-1)
SSC CGL Tier-I 2024 Question Paper with Complete Step-by-Step Solutions
Detailed topic-wise coverage of all 100 questions asked in SSC CGL Tier-I 2024 (Shift-1) on 09 September 2024. Includes full questions, multiple-choice options, official answers, and step-by-step explanations for Reasoning, General Awareness, Quantitative Aptitude, and English.
Examination Pattern & Instructions
Total Questions
100 Questions
Total Marks
200 Marks
Duration
60 Minutes
Marking Scheme
+2 / -0.50 Mark
Section 1: General Intelligence and Reasoning (Q1 – Q25)
25 Questions • 50 Marks
Q1. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '+' and '–' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are interchanged?
4515 × 5 – 431 ÷ 3 + 821 = ?
(a) 1335
(b) 1775
(c) 1575
(d) 1375
✓ Correct Answer: (d) 1375
Explanation: After interchanging signs: 4515 ÷ 5 + 431 × 3 – 821 = 903 + 1293 – 821 = 2196 – 821 = 1375.
Q2. 31 is related to 152 by certain logic. Following the same logic, 47 is related to 168. To which of the following is 66 related, following the same logic?
(a) 180
(b) 187
(c) 185
(d) 190
✓ Correct Answer: (b) 187
Explanation: Logic: a + 11² = b. 31 + 121 = 152; 47 + 121 = 168; 66 + 121 = 187.
Q3. Six letters Q, Z, V, T, L and A are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown with faces (Q, Z, V) and (T, L, V). Find the letter on the face opposite to Q.
(a) Z
(b) T
(c) V
(d) A
✓ Correct Answer: (b) T
Explanation: Common face V: Rotating clockwise gives opposite pairs: Z <-> L, and Q <-> T. Hence T is opposite to Q.
Q4. In the following number-pairs, select the number-pair that DOES NOT belong to the group.
(a) 335 – 119
(b) 358 – 152
(c) 317 – 101
(d) 308 – 92
✓ Correct Answer: (b) 358 – 152
Explanation: Difference: 335–119 = 216; 317–101 = 216; 308–92 = 216. But 358–152 = 206 (Does not equal 216).
Q5. In a certain code language, 'NAME' is written as 'FNBO' and 'NANO' is written as 'POBO'. How will 'NAIL' be written in that language?
(a) MOBJ
(b) MJOB
(c) MOJB
(d) MJBO
✓ Correct Answer: (d) MJBO
Explanation: Applying positional shift logic on NAIL results in MJBO.
Q6. Which word pair is the one that DOES NOT belong to the group?
(a) Pentagon-5 sides
(b) Hexagon-8 sides
(c) Triangle-3 sides
(d) Square-4 sides
✓ Correct Answer: (b) Hexagon-8 sides
Explanation: A Hexagon has 6 sides, not 8 sides. An Octagon has 8 sides.
Q7. The position of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word 'NIGHTMARES' is re-arranged in the English alphabetical order from left to right?
(a) One
(b) Four
(c) Two
(d) Three
✓ Correct Answer: (b) Four
Explanation: Original: N I G H T M A R E S. Alphabetical: A E G H I M N R S T. Letters G, H, M, and R remain unchanged in their original positions (4 letters).
Q8. What will come in the place of '?' if '+' and '–' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are interchanged in: 5 – 4 ÷ 9 + 80 × 10 = ?
(a) 31
(b) 33
(c) 35
(d) 30
✓ Correct Answer: (b) 33
Explanation: 5 + 4 × 9 – 80 ÷ 10 = 5 + 36 – 8 = 41 – 8 = 33.
Q9. Select the option in which numbers share the same relationship as: (149, 213), (168, 232)
(a) (162, 222)
(b) (153, 217)
(c) (137, 211)
(d) (144, 198)
✓ Correct Answer: (b) (153, 217)
Explanation: Logic: a + 64 = b. 149 + 64 = 213; 168 + 64 = 232; 153 + 64 = 217.
Q10. Select the correct mirror image of 'y T f r 9 3 n' when mirror is placed vertically at MN.
(a) Option A
(b) Option B
(c) Option C
(d) Option D
✓ Correct Answer: (b) Option B
Explanation: Lateral horizontal inversion inverts the sequence and character forms from right to left.
Q11. MEK : NVP :: GYT : TBG :: JWH : ?
(a) QDS
(b) PCR
(c) QDT
(d) PCS
✓ Correct Answer: (a) QDS
Explanation: Opposite letters: J <-> Q, W <-> D, H <-> S. Thus JWH corresponds to QDS.
Q12. Statements: No card is a parcel. All cards are envelopes. Some envelopes are bags.
Conclusions: I. All envelopes can never be parcels. II. No card is a bag. III. At least some bags are postcards.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) Only II and III follow
✓ Correct Answer: (a) Only I follows
Explanation: Since cards are inside envelopes and no card can be a parcel, all envelopes can never be parcels. Conclusion I definitely follows.
Q13. Select the correct mirror image of 'b c F g I' when mirror is placed at MN.
(a) Option A
(b) Option B
(c) Option C
(d) Option D
✓ Correct Answer: (a) Option A
Explanation: Mirror reflects the characters laterally inverted in reverse sequence.
Q14. Identify the option figure that when put in place of '?' logically completes the geometric series.
(a) Option A
(b) Option B
(c) Option C
(d) Option D
✓ Correct Answer: (b) Option B
Explanation: Geometric elements rotate 90° clockwise and cycle positions.
Q15. Which of the four options will replace '?' in the series: UE 88, VG 84, WI 80, XK 76, ?
(a) ZM 72
(b) ZN 71
(c) YN 73
(d) YM 72
✓ Correct Answer: (d) YM 72
Explanation: U(+1)->V(+1)->W(+1)->X(+1)->Y; E(+2)->G(+2)->I(+2)->K(+2)->M; 88(-4)->84(-4)->80(-4)->76(-4)->72. Ans: YM 72.
Q16. Complete letter series: L_P_QS_K_P_S_KP_Q_L_ _PQS
(a) KPLPLQLSPK
(b) PKLPQPLSKP
(c) KPLPQQLPSK
(d) KPLPQLPSKP
✓ Correct Answer: (d) KPLPQLPSKP
Explanation: Repeating pattern block: LKPPQS | LKPPQS | LKPPQS | LKPPQS. Missing letters: K P L P Q L S K P.
Q17. Identify the figure from the given options that completes the 2x2 grid letter pattern.
(a) Option A
(b) Option B
(c) Option C
(d) Option D
✓ Correct Answer: (b) Option B
Explanation: Letters rotate positions around corners sequentially in each step.
Q18. Six numbers 21, 22, 23, 24, 25 and 26 are on dice faces. Shown views: (21,23,25), (21,25,22), (25,24,22). Find the number on the face opposite to 24.
(a) 26
(b) 25
(c) 22
(d) 21
✓ Correct Answer: (d) 21
Explanation: Comparing dice views: 25 and 22 are common on both faces. Thus the remaining faces 24 and 21 are opposite to each other.
Q19. How many triangles are there in the given composite figure?
(a) 21
(b) 20
(c) 18
(d) 19
✓ Correct Answer: (a) 21
Explanation: Counting all individual, pairwise and composite triangles gives a total of 21 triangles.
Q20. In a code language: 'what where how' = 'aa dd ff'; 'where there that' = 'dd zz pp'; 'which what here' = 'ff kk ll'. How is 'how' written?
(a) aa
(b) kk
(c) zz
(d) ff
✓ Correct Answer: (a) aa
Explanation: 'where' = dd, 'what' = ff. Thus in the first statement, 'how' = aa.
Q21. Statements: Some tears are drops. Some drops are streams. All streams are rivers.
Conclusions: I. All tears can never be rivers. II. Some drops are rivers. III. All tears being streams is a possibility.
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Both II and III conclusion follow
(c) Only conclusion III follows
(d) Both I and II conclusion follow
✓ Correct Answer: (b) Both II and III conclusion follow
Explanation: Some drops are streams and all streams are rivers -> Some drops are rivers (II follows). There is no negative statement between tears and streams, so possibility holds (III follows).
Q22. Which term will replace '?' in the series: YZUW, ?, QTQU, MQOT, INMS
(a) UWSV
(b) UWVS
(c) USWV
(d) WUSV
✓ Correct Answer: (a) UWSV
Explanation: First letter: -4 (Y-4=U); Second: -3 (Z-3=W); Third: -2 (U-2=S); Fourth: -1 (W-1=V) -> UWSV.
Q23. Given code rules (+: mother, –: father, $: son, %: sister, /: wife, =: brother). Which means 'A is the daughter of K'?
(a) i
(b) iii
(c) ii
(d) iv
✓ Correct Answer: (b) iii
Explanation: In iii: K + A / P – D % J -> K is mother of A, A is wife of P (so A is female), which proves A is daughter of K.
Q24. 19 is related to 209 (19 × 11 = 209). 27 is related to 297 (27 × 11 = 297). To which of the following is 61 related?
(a) 653
(b) 600
(c) 571
(d) 671
✓ Correct Answer: (d) 671
Explanation: Logic: a × 11 = b. 61 × 11 = 671.
Q25. Which number will replace the question mark (?) in: 1, 3, 10, 41, ?, 1237
(a) 202
(b) 210
(c) 200
(d) 206
✓ Correct Answer: (d) 206
Explanation: Pattern: (1×2)+1=3; (3×3)+1=10; (10×4)+1=41; (41×5)+1=206; (206×6)+1=1237.
Section 2: General Awareness (Q26 – Q50)
25 Questions • 50 Marks
Q26. In which year was Project Tiger launched in India?
(a) 1973
(b) 1970
(c) 1972
(d) 1985
✓ Correct Answer: (a) 1973
Explanation: Project Tiger was launched on April 1, 1973 by the Ministry of Environment from Jim Corbett National Park to protect Royal Bengal tigers.
Q27. Lathmar Holi is primarily celebrated in the state of:
(a) Karnataka
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh
✓ Correct Answer: (d) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation: Lathmar Holi is celebrated in the towns of Barsana and Nandgaon in Mathura district of Uttar Pradesh.
Q28. Which of the following awards was won by Lata Mangeshkar in the year 2001?
(a) Dadasaheb Phalke Award
(b) Padma Vibhushan
(c) Bharat Ratna
(d) Filmfare Lifetime Achievement Award
✓ Correct Answer: (c) Bharat Ratna
Explanation: Legendary playback singer Lata Mangeshkar was conferred India’s highest civilian honour, the Bharat Ratna, in 2001.
Q29. Details about Sudarshana lake is given in a rock inscription at Girnar (Junagarh), which records achievements of Shaka ruler:
(a) Chashtana
(b) Rudradaman I
(c) Rudrasimha III
(d) Maues
✓ Correct Answer: (b) Rudradaman I
Explanation: The Junagadh Sanskrit rock inscription of Rudradaman I records the history and repair of Sudarshana Lake in Gujarat.
Q30. ___________ is an industry association and self-regulatory organisation (SRO) working towards the microfinance sector.
(a) NABARD
(b) Self-help Group Association
(c) Microfinance and Investments Regulatory Authority
(d) Microfinance Institutions Network
✓ Correct Answer: (d) Microfinance Institutions Network
Explanation: Microfinance Institutions Network (MFIN) was established in 2009 as an SRO for NBFC-MFIs.
Q31. Which article of the Indian Constitution has a similar provision to Article 32 and deals with High Court writ jurisdiction?
(a) Article 228
(b) Article 227
(c) Article 226
(d) Article 225
✓ Correct Answer: (c) Article 226
Explanation: Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs (Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo-Warranto, Certiorari) for fundamental and other legal rights.
Q32. Which of the following is NOT a condition for the President's office in India?
(a) He shall not hold any office of profit.
(b) The allowances shall not be diminished during his term of office.
(c) He shall not be entitled, without payment of rent, to use his official residence.
(d) He shall not be a member of either House of the Parliament.
✓ Correct Answer: (c) He shall not be entitled, without payment of rent, to use his official residence.
Explanation: Under Article 59, the President is entitled without payment of rent to use his official residence (Rashtrapati Bhavan).
Q33. Which of the following statements best defines monoecious?
(a) A flower with gynoecium only
(b) A flower with androecium only
(c) A flower with both androecium and gynoecium
(d) A flower with dithecous
✓ Correct Answer: (c) A flower with both androecium and gynoecium
Explanation: Monoecious plants possess both male (androecium) and female (gynoecium) reproductive organs on the same plant.
Q34. Mohan Veena player, Pandit Vishwa Mohan Bhatt won the ____________ Award in the year 1994.
(a) Grammy
(b) Sangita Kalanidhi
(c) Oscar
(d) Sangeet Natak Akademi
✓ Correct Answer: (a) Grammy
Explanation: Pandit Vishwa Mohan Bhatt won the Grammy Award in 1994 for the album 'A Meeting by the River' with Ry Cooder.
Q35. Who was Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science and Technology as of July 2023?
(a) Dharmendra Pradhan
(b) Jitendra Singh
(c) Ashwini Vaishnaw
(d) Ramesh Pokhriyal
✓ Correct Answer: (b) Jitendra Singh
Explanation: Dr. Jitendra Singh has been serving as the Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science and Technology.
Q36. Which of the following decomposition reactions is NOT a redox reaction?
(a) Decomposition of sodium hydride
(b) Decomposition of calcium carbonate
(c) Decomposition of potassium chlorate
(d) Decomposition of dihydrogen monoxide
✓ Correct Answer: (b) Decomposition of calcium carbonate
Explanation: Decomposition of calcium carbonate (CaCO3 -> CaO + CO2) is a non-redox thermal decomposition reaction.
Q37. Who among the following has authored the play 'Nil Darpan'?
(a) Chittaranjan Das
(b) Motilal Nehru
(c) Dinabandhu Mitra
(d) Sarojini Naidu
✓ Correct Answer: (c) Dinabandhu Mitra
Explanation: Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Nil Darpan in 1858-59 portraying the exploitation of indigo peasants in Bengal during the Indigo Revolt.
Q38. Who formed the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha in 1929?
(a) Jayprakash Narayan
(b) JM Sengupta
(c) Kunwar Singh
(d) Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
✓ Correct Answer: (d) Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
Explanation: Swami Sahajanand Saraswati formed the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (BPKS) in 1929 to mobilize peasants against the Zamindari system.
Q39. Which plateaus are very fertile because they are rich in black soil ideal for farming?
(a) Deccan lava plateau
(b) African plateau
(c) Ethiopian plateau
(d) Katanga plateau
✓ Correct Answer: (a) Deccan lava plateau
Explanation: The Deccan lava plateau contains volcanic basalt black regur soil, rich in lime, iron and humus, ideal for cotton and pulses cultivation.
Q40. Which of the following is a correct order of basicity of alkali metal hydroxides?
(a) LiOH > NaOH > KOH > CsOH
(b) KOH > CsOH > NaOH > LiOH
(c) LiOH > KOH > CsOH > NaOH
(d) CsOH > KOH > NaOH > LiOH
✓ Correct Answer: (d) CsOH > KOH > NaOH > LiOH
Explanation: Basicity increases down group 1: CsOH is the strongest base and LiOH is the weakest.
Q41. Which of the following pairs is INCORRECT regarding grade of organisation?
(a) Cell-tissue grade organisation – Jellyfish
(b) Cellular grade organisation – Sycon
(c) Protoplasmic grade organisation – Paramecium
(d) Tissue-organ grade organisation – Euplectella
✓ Correct Answer: (d) Tissue-organ grade organisation – Euplectella
Explanation: Euplectella (sponge / Venus Flower Basket) belongs to Porifera and exhibits cellular grade of organization lacking true organs.
Q42. The head office of Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) is located in:
(a) Kolkata
(b) Chennai
(c) Mumbai
(d) New Delhi
✓ Correct Answer: (c) Mumbai
Explanation: BCCI headquarters is situated at Cricket Centre, Wankhede Stadium, Churchgate, Mumbai.
Q43. When population density is calculated through net cultivated area, the measure is termed:
(a) Net density
(b) Gross density
(c) Agricultural density
(d) Physiological density
✓ Correct Answer: (d) Physiological density
Explanation: Physiological density is the ratio of total population to total net cultivated (arable) land area.
Q44. Mahendravarman I was the ruler of which of the following dynasties?
(a) Pallava
(b) Pandya
(c) Chalukya
(d) Chola
✓ Correct Answer: (a) Pallava
Explanation: Mahendravarman I (600–630 CE) was a major king of the Pallava dynasty who ruled Tamil Nadu and Andhra regions.
Q45. What challenge does foreign investment often face in India?
(a) Excessive foreign competition
(b) Lack of skilled labour
(c) Lack of consumer base
(d) Inconsistent regulatory environment
✓ Correct Answer: (d) Inconsistent regulatory environment
Explanation: Frequent policy and regulatory changes create compliance complexity for long-term investments.
Q46. Which of the following states is the biggest producer of Pulses among the options?
(a) Bihar
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Punjab
(d) Haryana
✓ Correct Answer: (b) Madhya Pradesh
Explanation: Madhya Pradesh is among the largest pulses producing states in India.
Q47. Who founded the Prarthana Samaj in Mumbai in 1867?
(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(b) Shri Ram Bajpai
(c) Atmaram Pandurang
(d) Ram Mohan Roy
✓ Correct Answer: (c) Atmaram Pandurang
Explanation: Dr. Atmaram Pandurang founded the Prarthana Samaj in Mumbai in 1867 to advance socio-religious reforms.
Q48. Who is the Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu as of July 2023?
(a) KN Nehru
(b) Pinarayi Vijayan
(c) M Yedurappa
(d) MK Stalin
✓ Correct Answer: (d) MK Stalin
Explanation: M.K. Stalin has been serving as the Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu since May 2021.
Q49. In which city was the first golf club of India situated?
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mysore
(c) Shimla
(d) Gulmarg
✓ Correct Answer: (a) Kolkata
Explanation: The Royal Calcutta Golf Club in Kolkata was established in 1829, making it the oldest golf club in India and outside Britain.
Q50. Which Indian was named in Time Magazine's list of '100 most influential people of 2021'?
(a) Amit Shah
(b) Narendra Modi
(c) Neeraj Chopra
(d) Virat Kohli
✓ Correct Answer: (b) Narendra Modi
Explanation: Prime Minister Narendra Modi was featured in Time Magazine's 100 most influential people of 2021.
Section 3: Quantitative Aptitude (Q51 – Q75)
25 Questions • 50 Marks
Q51. A grocer professes to sell rice at cost price, but uses a fake weight of 870 g for 1 kg. Find his profit percentage (correct to 2 decimal places).
(a) 11.11%
(b) 14.94%
(c) 15.11%
(d) 18.21%
✓ Correct Answer: (b) 14.94%
Explanation: Profit % = (130 / 870) × 100 = 14.94%.
Q52. The value of cos²29º + cos²61º is:
(a) √3 / 2
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) 1
✓ Correct Answer: (d) 1
Explanation: cos²29º + cos²61º = cos²(90º–61º) + cos²61º = sin²61º + cos²61º = 1.
Q53. In a circular race of 840 m, A and B start running in the same direction at 6 m/s and 12 m/s. After how much time will they meet next?
(a) 140 s
(b) 40 s
(c) 70 s
(d) 20 s
✓ Correct Answer: (a) 140 s
Explanation: Relative speed = 12 – 6 = 6 m/s. Time to meet = 840 / 6 = 140 seconds.
Q54. Let O be centre of circle. Parallel chords AB = 10 cm, CD = 24 cm on same side of centre. If distance PQ = 7 cm between chords, find diameter of circle.
(a) 24 cm
(b) 13 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) 26 cm
✓ Correct Answer: (d) 26 cm
Explanation: Half chords = 5 cm & 12 cm. Radius R² = 12² + x² = 5² + (x+7)². 144+x² = 74+14x+x² -> 14x = 70 -> x = 5. R = √(12²+5²) = 13 cm. Diameter = 26 cm.
Q55. Which of the following statements is sufficient to conclude that two triangles are congruent?
(a) One side and one angle of both triangles are equal.
(b) These have two equal sides and the same perimeter.
(c) These have the same area and the same base.
(d) These have the same base and the same height.
✓ Correct Answer: (b) These have two equal sides and the same perimeter.
Explanation: Two equal pairs of sides with identical perimeters guarantee the third side is also equal (SSS congruency).
Q56. Marks % in History (Max 175): Ram 54%, Mohan 51%, Shyam 75%. If minimum pass marks in History is 105, how many students pass?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 0
✓ Correct Answer: (c) 1
Explanation: Passing marks = (105 / 175) × 100 = 60%. Ram (54%) and Mohan (51%) failed. Only Shyam (75%) passed (1 student).
Q57. Fill pipe P is 21 times faster than pipe Q. If Q fills a cistern in 110 minutes, find the time taken when both are opened together.
(a) 3 minutes
(b) 5 minutes
(c) 4 minutes
(d) 6 minutes
✓ Correct Answer: (b) 5 minutes
Explanation: Efficiencies: Q = 1, P = 21. Total capacity = 110 units. Time = 110 / (21 + 1) = 5 minutes.
Q58. Marks (out of 100) of Tarun: Maths 65, Physics 80, Chemistry 75, English 85, Physical Ed 90. Who obtained 79% (or 72%) marks?
(a) Rohit
(b) Tarun
(c) Mohit
(d) Sumit
✓ Correct Answer: (b) Tarun
Explanation: Tarun's total = 65 + 80 + 75 + 85 + 90 = 395 out of 500 = 79%.
Q59. R pays ₹100 to P with ₹5, ₹2 and ₹1 coins (total 40 coins). Find the number of ₹5 coins.
(a) 13
(b) 17
(c) 16
(d) 18
✓ Correct Answer: (a) 13
Explanation: 5x + 2y + z = 100 and x + y + z = 40 -> 4x + y = 60. For x = 13: y = 8, z = 19. Total coins = 40. Number of ₹5 coins = 13.
Q60. Radii of two cones are in ratio 2:5 and volumes are in ratio 3:5. What is the ratio of their heights?
(a) 13 : 11
(b) 4 : 11
(c) 11 : 15
(d) 15 : 4
✓ Correct Answer: (d) 15 : 4
Explanation: V1/V2 = (r1/r2)² × (h1/h2) -> 3/5 = (4/25) × (h1/h2) -> h1/h2 = (3/5) × (25/4) = 15/4.
Q61. Which of the following can be the value of 'k' so that the number 217924k is divisible by 6?
(a) 2
(b) 6
(c) 0
(d) 4
✓ Correct Answer: (a) 2
Explanation: Sum of digits = 2+1+7+9+2+4+k = 25+k. If k = 2, sum = 27 (divisible by 3) and last digit 2 is even.
Q62. In an election, y% did not vote, 10% votes were invalid. Winning candidate got 59.375% of valid votes and won by 2484 votes (16,000 total voters). Find y.
(a) 8
(b) 8.4
(c) 7.5
(d) 7.2
✓ Correct Answer: (a) 8
Explanation: Majority = 59.375% – 40.625% = 18.75% = 3/16. (3/16) × Valid votes = 2484 -> Valid votes = 13248 -> (1 – y/100) = 13248 / (16000 × 0.9) = 0.92 -> y = 8.
Q63. An article is marked at ₹550. Sold at 40% discount, the selling price is 10% more than cost price. Find cost price.
(a) ₹330
(b) ₹220
(c) ₹300
(d) ₹200
✓ Correct Answer: (c) ₹300
Explanation: SP = 550 × 0.60 = ₹330. CP = 330 / 1.10 = ₹300.
Q64. If the sum of two sides of an equilateral triangle is 16 cm, find the third side.
(a) Cannot be found
(b) 16 cm
(c) 4 cm
(d) 8 cm
✓ Correct Answer: (d) 8 cm
Explanation: In equilateral triangle all sides are equal. 2a = 16 cm -> a = 8 cm. Third side = 8 cm.
Q65. Simplify (x² – 9) / (x + 3)
(a) x – 9
(b) x + 9
(c) x – 3
(d) √(x² – 9)
✓ Correct Answer: (c) x – 3
Explanation: (x² – 9) / (x + 3) = (x – 3)(x + 3) / (x + 3) = x – 3.
Q66. In which year was the number of absentees the second highest in total of all centres (P, Q, R)?
(a) 2018
(b) 2019
(c) 2020
(d) 2017
✓ Correct Answer: (b) 2019
Explanation: Absentees: 2018 = 34, 2019 = 31, 2020 = 30, 2017 = 30. Second highest is 2019 with 31 absentees.
Q67. Distance between centres of two circles of radii 22 cm and 10 cm is 37 cm. Find the length of direct common tangent MQ.
(a) 39 cm
(b) 29 cm
(c) 35 cm
(d) 25 cm
✓ Correct Answer: (c) 35 cm
Explanation: L = √[d² – (r1 – r2)²] = √[37² – 12²] = √[1369 – 144] = √1225 = 35 cm.
Q68. Evaluate: sin²30º – sin²40º + sin²45º – sin²55º – sin²35º + sin²45º – sin²50º + sin²60º
(a) 4
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2
✓ Correct Answer: (b) 0
Explanation: (sin²30+cos²30) – (sin²40+cos²40) + 2(sin²45) – (cos²35+sin²35) = 1 – 1 + 1 – 1 = 0.
Q69. Average marks of boys is 75 and girls is 80. Overall average of all students is 78. Find the ratio of boys to girls.
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 3 : 4
✓ Correct Answer: (b) 2 : 3
Explanation: Alligation: (80 – 78) : (78 – 75) = 2 : 3.
Q70. Rajesh completed 17/27 of a printing order in 34 days. In how many days did he complete the entire order?
(a) 54
(b) 60
(c) 56
(d) 20
✓ Correct Answer: (a) 54
Explanation: Total days = 34 × (27 / 17) = 2 × 27 = 54 days.
Q71. Simplify: [(x³ + 15x² + 75x + 125) / (x² – 25)] × (x – 5)
(a) x² + 5x + 25
(b) x² – 25
(c) x² + 10x + 25
(d) x² + 25
✓ Correct Answer: (c) x² + 10x + 25
Explanation: [(x + 5)³ / ((x – 5)(x + 5))] × (x – 5) = (x + 5)² = x² + 10x + 25.
Q72. If cosec θ = 5/3, evaluate (sec²θ – 1) × cot²θ × (1 + cot²θ)
(a) 9/16
(b) 25/9
(c) 25/16
(d) 4/5
✓ Correct Answer: (b) 25/9
Explanation: (sec²θ – 1) × cot²θ × (1 + cot²θ) = tan²θ × cot²θ × cosec²θ = cosec²θ = (5/3)² = 25/9.
Q73. Which of the following can be the value of k if [(88 ÷ 8 × k – 3 × 3) / (6² – 7 × 5 + k²)] = 1?
(a) 2, 7
(b) 4, 7
(c) 3, 10
(d) 1, 10
✓ Correct Answer: (d) 1, 10
Explanation: (11k – 9) / (36 – 35 + k²) = 1 -> 11k – 9 = k² + 1 -> k² – 11k + 10 = 0 -> (k – 10)(k – 1) = 0 -> k = 1, 10.
Q74. If someone secured highest score obtained across 6 subjects (Maths 150, Chem 130, Phys 120, Geo 100, Hist 60, CS 40), what is their overall % score?
(a) 90 5/6%
(b) 91 1/6%
(c) 95.16%
(d) 95%
✓ Correct Answer: (b) 91 1/6%
Explanation: Max sum = 150(100%)+130(80%)+120(90%)+100(95%)+60(90%)+40(90%) = 150+104+108+95+54+36 = 547 out of 600. % = (547/600) × 100 = 91 1/6%.
Q75. Mohan borrows ₹4,22,092 at 20% SI. At end of year 1, repays ₹21,679 principal. How much total does he pay at end of year 2?
(a) ₹5,61,347
(b) ₹5,64,914
(c) ₹5,58,380
(d) ₹5,56,367
✓ Correct Answer: (b) ₹5,64,914
Explanation: Year 1 SI = ₹84,418.4. Remaining principal = ₹4,00,413. Year 2 SI = ₹80,082.6. Total repayment = 400413 + 84418.4 + 80082.6 = ₹5,64,914.
Section 4: English Comprehension (Q76 – Q100)
25 Questions • 50 Marks
Q76. Select the most appropriate synonym of 'Fatal':
(a) Additional
(b) Easy
(c) Deadly
(d) Jovial
✓ Correct Answer: (c) Deadly
Explanation: 'Fatal' means causing death; 'Deadly' is its direct synonym.
Q77. Select active voice: Lovely tunes are composed by Domnica.
(a) Domnica composes tunes lovely.
(b) Domnica will compose lovely tunes.
(c) Domnica composes lovely tunes.
(d) Domnica composed lovely tunes.
✓ Correct Answer: (c) Domnica composes lovely tunes.
Explanation: Present simple passive 'are composed by' converts into active 'composes'.
Q78. Select antonym of 'vouch' in: The explosive used is of my own formulation, and I can vouch for its efficiency.
(a) Invalidate
(b) Maintain
(c) Witness
(d) Certify
✓ Correct Answer: (a) Invalidate
Explanation: 'Vouch' means to assert/affirm; opposite is 'Invalidate' (to nullify or disprove).
Q79. Identify grammatical error segment: Mr. Abhilash and his family / have received / no informations / about the incident.
(a) about the incident.
(b) Mr. Abhilash and his family
(c) have received
(d) no informations
✓ Correct Answer: (d) no informations
Explanation: 'Information' is an uncountable noun. Correct usage is 'no information'.
Q80. Select the synonym of 'Toxic':
(a) Lethal
(b) Licit
(c) Laudatory
(d) Lanky
✓ Correct Answer: (a) Lethal
Explanation: 'Toxic' means poisonous; 'Lethal' (deadly) is the closest synonym.
Q81. One-word substitution: 'Unit of weight for precious stones'
(a) Pure
(b) Accurate
(c) Reliable
(d) Carat
✓ Correct Answer: (d) Carat
Explanation: 'Carat' is the standard unit of mass for gems and diamonds (1 carat = 200 mg).
Q82. One-word substitution: She is proficient in speaking many languages.
(a) Heterolinguistic
(b) Bilingual
(c) Multilingual
(d) Monolithic
✓ Correct Answer: (c) Multilingual
Explanation: A person who speaks multiple languages is 'Multilingual' (or Polyglot).
Q83. Express in passive voice: Ishika saw the tiger in the forest.
(a) The tiger saw by Ishika in the forest.
(b) The tiger sees Ishika in the forest.
(c) The tiger was seen by Ishika in the forest.
(d) The tiger was seen by the forest in Ishika.
✓ Correct Answer: (c) The tiger was seen by Ishika in the forest.
Explanation: Past simple 'saw' changes to 'was seen by'.
Q84. One-word substitution: 'A person who likes to argue about anything'
(a) Veracious
(b) Reticent
(c) Contentious
(d) Coward
✓ Correct Answer: (c) Contentious
Explanation: 'Contentious' describes a person who enjoys arguing or provoking debates.
Q85. Substitute underlined segment: 'Spy Family' is a graphic novel in which story is conveyed using uninterrupted art in a traditional comics format.
(a) sedimental art in a traditional
(b) longitudinal art in a traditional
(c) existential art in a traditional
(d) sequential art in a traditional
✓ Correct Answer: (d) sequential art in a traditional
Explanation: 'Sequential art' is the proper technical term for graphic novels and comics.
Q86. Identify the grammatical error: My brother performed/extremely good/in the class test/held yesterday.
(a) held yesterday
(b) extremely good
(c) in the class test
(d) My brother performed
✓ Correct Answer: (b) extremely good
Explanation: The verb 'performed' requires the adverb 'extremely well' instead of the adjective 'good'.
Q87. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word:
(a) Bureaucracy
(b) Embarrass
(c) Connoisseur
(d) Relevent
✓ Correct Answer: (d) Relevent
Explanation: The correct spelling is 'Relevant' (with 'a', not 'e').
Q88. Select synonym of 'altruistic' in: No altruistic act is truly sincere.
(a) phenomenal
(b) phonotypical
(c) philanthropic
(d) phantasmal
✓ Correct Answer: (c) philanthropic
Explanation: 'Altruistic' means charitable/selfless; 'Philanthropic' is its synonym.
Q89. Select synonym of 'Innuendo':
(a) Crude
(b) Prose
(c) Ragged
(d) Insinuation
✓ Correct Answer: (d) Insinuation
Explanation: 'Innuendo' means an indirect suggestion/hint; 'Insinuation' is its synonym.
Q90. Fill in the blank: Vinod had a ________ escape in the car accident.
(a) comfortable
(b) full
(c) narrow
(d) wide
✓ Correct Answer: (c) narrow
Explanation: 'Narrow escape' is the standard idiomatic expression for barely avoiding disaster.
Q91. One-word substitution: 'A short interesting story about a real person or event'
(a) Anecdote
(b) Sketch
(c) Poem
(d) Narrative
✓ Correct Answer: (a) Anecdote
Explanation: 'Anecdote' denotes a brief personal narrative or amusing biographical incident.
Q92. Select synonym of 'harass' in: We’d better watch our step and not give him any excuse to harass us further.
(a) betray
(b) intimidate
(c) relish
(d) soothe
✓ Correct Answer: (b) intimidate
Explanation: 'Harass' means to torment or persecute; 'Intimidate' is the closest synonym.
Q93. Select meaning of the idiom: 'To have bigger fish to fry'
(a) To have bigger things to take care of than the menial task at hand
(b) To take calculated risks
(c) To know different kinds of fishing techniques
(d) To have an interest in cooking
✓ Correct Answer: (a) To have bigger things to take care of than the menial task at hand
Explanation: Refers to having more important or pressing priorities.
Q94. Identify misspelt word: After the recapture (A) of Tololing and the adjacent features, evacting (B) the enemy from this well-fortified (C) position became a priority.(D)
(a) B
(b) D
(c) C
(d) A
✓ Correct Answer: (a) B
Explanation: Word 'evacting' is misspelt; correct word is 'evacuating' or 'evicting'.
Q95. Substitute underlined segment: She has been studying for two o’clock.
(a) study from two o’clock
(b) studying since two o’clock
(c) studying two o’clock
(d) study for two o’clock
✓ Correct Answer: (b) studying since two o’clock
Explanation: For a specific point of time in perfect continuous tense, 'since' is used instead of 'for'.
Q96. Cloze Passage Blank 1: There is a saying that coming events cast their shadows before. (1)________, it is not universally true.
(a) Therefore
(b) Furthermore
(c) Moreover
(d) However
✓ Correct Answer: (d) However
Explanation: 'However' correctly introduces the contrasting perspective.
Q97. Cloze Passage Blank 2: Something can happen within a second, and one may not (2)________ it.
(a) rescind
(b) foresee
(c) legalise
(d) affect
✓ Correct Answer: (b) foresee
Explanation: 'Foresee' means to anticipate or predict in advance.
Q98. Cloze Passage Blank 3: (3)________, some instances show that predictions based on certain signs have gone wrong.
(a) Therefore
(b) Moreover
(c) However
(d) Nevertheless
✓ Correct Answer: (d) Nevertheless
Explanation: 'Nevertheless' expresses contrast to general assumptions.
Q99. Cloze Passage Blank 4: (4)________, some unnatural calamities that are likely to appear may forecast their shadows by some bad omens.
(a) Therefore
(b) Secondly
(c) Besides
(d) Despite
✓ Correct Answer: (a) Therefore
Explanation: 'Therefore' concludes the logical deduction.
Q100. Cloze Passage Blank 5: (5)________, we should not completely cancel out the possibilities that animals can sense certain unnatural happenings.
(a) Therefore
(b) However
(c) Nevertheless
(d) Moreover
✓ Correct Answer: (c) Nevertheless
Explanation: 'Nevertheless' conveys continuing possibility despite unpredictability.
Frequently Asked Questions
Q: Where can I download the official SSC CGL Tier-1 2024 solved paper PDF?
Ans: You can download the complete solved question paper for SSC CGL Tier-1 directly from RozgarRank with detailed step-by-step explanations for all shifts.
Q: What is the marking scheme for the SSC CGL Tier-1 exam?
Ans: The SSC CGL Tier-1 exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions carrying 200 marks in total. There is a negative marking of 0.50 marks for every incorrect answer.
Q: How will solving previous year papers help in SSC CGL 2026 preparation?
Ans: Solving previous year papers helps aspirants understand the latest exam pattern, recurring question types, and time management required to crack the SSC CGL 2026 exam.
Q: What are the core subjects asked in the SSC CGL Tier-1 examination?
Ans: The Tier-1 exam covers four main subjects: General Intelligence & Reasoning, General Awareness, Quantitative Aptitude, and English Comprehension.
Q: When is the upcoming SSC CGL 2026 notification expected?
Ans: The official notification and exam dates for SSC CGL 2026 are released annually by the Staff Selection Commission on their official website and updated instantly on RozgarRank.
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